There is a question I have never been able to answer and I am wondering if anyone can. The typology that begins the Gospels is widely understood by NT (New Testament) scholars:
Given the understanding, why did no scholar ever attempt to determine if the very next story in Matthew was also written using the same genre of the preceding passages? All anyone had to do, to see that the Gospels’ “fishing for men” story continued the pattern established by the Moses/Jesus typology of parallel events, names and locations in sequence, was simply to inspect the known events that occurred at the Sea of Galilee — an easy thing to do, as there are very few. With this simple technique, the following passage from Josephus would certainly have been noticed as having an odd parallelism to the “fishing for men” story in the Gospels:
“Those that were drowning were either killed by the spears or caught by the vessels.”
–– Josephus Wars of the Jews 3, 10, 9
Once this parallel is noticed, the rest are not too hard to spot – especially since they occur in the same sequence. Had anyone walked this obvious path in the sixteenth century, we would be living in a different world today.
So how was the obvious introduction to the Jesus/Titus typology missed by so many scholars? I would love to read your comments below.